I have not read much in medieval sacramental theology, so I do not know if this position is common or not. It came up when I was reading a series of questions on the efficacy of circumcision; the question I have quoted from below is from one dealing with whether there was some remedy for original sin prior to the institution of circumcision.
Duns Scotus, Ordinatio IV d.1 pars 4 incidentalis q.2 n.389 (XI 138):
"Nullo tempore dimisit Deus cultores suos sine remedio necessario ad salutem; sed omni tempore-post lapsum-fuit necessaria ad salutem deletio originalis; ergo quocumque tempore erat aliquod remedium efficax ad deletionem illius peccati"
At no time did God leave his worshippers without a remedy necessary for salvation; but at every time after the fall the removal of original [sin] was necessary for salvation; therefore at every time there was some efficacious remedy for the removal of that sin.
3 comments:
I would think that it is a common position--if God desires the salvation of all men, then etc. The question is whether He instituted some tool (and visible sign) by which grace would be given as a remedy?
Well, some means of attaining salvation prior to the giving of the law.
Aquinas has something roughly like this at ST 3.70.2 ad 1, which is an interesting argument itself.
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